When Jesus says he is coming en tachy, does that refer to imminence or the manner of how he comes? The most natural way to read it is imminence. Does this not prove preterism, then? Unless you are a full (heretical) preterist, no one believes all the events happened en tachy. Rather, Osborne suggests “It is better to see this as apocalyptic language similar to that throughout the New Testament on the “soon” return of Christ…Such language never means that there are no events yet to occur, for both Christ (Matt. 13:24-30; 25:1-13) and the Apocalypse itself (6:11) realize there will be a period of time before its fulfillment (55). Rather, the language is supposed to draw the reader into a sense of expectation and responsibility.